Supreme Court on Thursday January 21, 2010 ruled that the government may not ban political spending by corporations in candidate elections.
“If the First Amendment has any force,” Justice Anthony M. Kennedy wrote for the majority, “it prohibits Congress from fining or jailing citizens, or associations of citizens, for simply engaging in political speech.”
"The 1st Amendment does not permit Congress to make these categorical distinctions based on the corporate identity of the speaker and the content of the political speech."
Negative implication
Does it mean now multi-national corporations
( with enormous resources and infinite legal lifespan )
have the same freedom of speech as individual citizens
( with limited resources and biological lifespan ) ?
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